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Showing posts with label Study Material. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Study Material. Show all posts

Sunday 25 August 2024

JKSSB Todays Question Paper

JKSSB Todays Question Paper

Computer Section Questions 

  1. Question:
Which of the following is a product of Meta Platforms Inc.?
A) Instagram
B) Azure
C) Skype
D) Github

  Answer:  
  A) Instagram  .



  2. Question:
Which of the following is NOT an e-commerce website?
A) AJIO
B) Amazon
C) Facebook
D) Bookmyshow

  Answer:  
  C) Facebook  .

  3. Question:
Consider the following statements about Device Driver.
1. It is a hardware device that is attached to a computer.
2. It acts as a translator between the hardware device and operating systems or applications that use it.
3. It instructs the computer on how to communicate with the device by translating the operating system's instructions into a language that a device can understand in order to perform the necessary tasks.
4. Examples of device drivers: printer driver, display driver, USB driver, sound card driver, motherboard drivers, ROM drivers, etc.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  Answer:  2, 3, 4

Watch Video 


  4. Question:
Which of the following is an example of internal hardware devices?
A) Video card
B) Touchpad
C) Webcam
D) Microphone

  Answer:  
  A) Video card  .

  5. Question:
Direct Memory Access (DMA) controller is a feature within the computer that:
A) Transfers the data to the main memory without intervention of CPU.
B) Coordinates communication between the computer and network devices.
C) Provides a graphical interface for managing system resources.
D) Manages the CPU’s clock speed and temperature.

  Answer:  
  A) Transfers the data to the main memory without intervention of CPU  .

  6. Question:
Which of the following is NOT a real-time operating system?
A) RTLinux
B) Palm OS
C) QNX
D) VxWorks

  Answer:  
  B) Palm OS  .

  7. Question:
Match List   I (Key) with List   II (Shortcut keys on PowerPoint presentation):
  i) F5
  ii) Shift+F5
  iii) Alt+F5
  iv) Esc

List   II (Shortcut keys on PowerPoint presentation):
1) Start the presentation from beginning
2) Start the presentation from the current slide
3) Start the presentation in presenter view
4) End the presentation

  Answer:  
  i) F5: 1) Start the presentation from beginning
  ii) Shift+F5: 2) Start the presentation from the current slide
  iii) Alt+F5: 3) Start the presentation in presenter view
  iv) Esc: 4) End the presentation

  8. Question:
Which of the following statements about MS PowerPoint's slide master features is NOT true?
A) Changes made to the slide master affect all slides in the presentation that use the same layout.
B) You can create multiple slide masters within a single presentation.
C) Slide masters cannot be used to modify the font and background of slides.
D) Custom slide layouts can be created and saved in the template.

  Answer:  
  C) Slide masters cannot be used to modify the font and background of slides  .

  9. Question:
Which of the following statements about email protocols and services is NOT true?
A) POP3 enables users to access their email messages directly on the server without downloading them.
B) IMAP allows users to access and manage their email on multiple devices while keeping the messages synchronized.
C) SMTP is used for sending outgoing email messages from the client to the server.
D) Email clients can use SSL/TLS to encrypt the communication between the client and the server for secure email transmission.

  Answer:  
  A) POP3 enables users to access their email messages directly on the server without downloading them  .

10. What is the relationship between bits and bytes?
   A) 1 bit = 8 bytes.
   B) 1 byte = 8 bits.
   C) 1 bit = 4 bytes.
   D) 1 byte = 4 bits.

Answers:
 B) 1 byte = 8 bits.  

11. The first supercomputer developed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC), Pune is
   A) PARAM 2000.
   B) Mihir 2000.
   C) PARAM 8000.
   D) SAGA -220.

Answer:  C) PARAM 8000.  

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JKSSB Today Exam Question Paper

JKSSB Today Exam Question Paper


1.   Question:  
   After returning from South Africa, Gandhiji launched his first successful Satyagraha in:
   A) Chauri Chaura
   B) Champaran
   C) Bardoli
   D) Dandi

     Correct Answer:  
   B) Champaran




2.   Question:  
   Which of the following statements related to tribes in India are correct?
   A) Tharu tribes are found in Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand.
   B) Irula, Chenchu and Sumali tribes are found in Kerala.
   C) Garasia tribes are found in Goa.
   D) Gaddi tribes are nomadic herders of Jammu and Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh.

     Correct Answer:  
   A) Tharu tribes are found in Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand.
Watch Part 2



3.   Question:  
   Which of the following States of India does not have a common border with Myanmar?
   A) Nagaland
   B) Arunachal Pradesh
   C) Mizoram
   D) Assam

     Correct Answer:  
   D) Assam

4.   Question:  
   The name of the coast of Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh is:
   A) Northern circar
   B) Malabar
   C) Konkan
   D) Coromandel

     Correct Answer:  
   D) Coromandel

5.   Question:  
   Which State of India has borders with three countries namely Nepal, Bhutan, and China?
   A) Meghalaya
   B) Mizoram
   C) Sikkim
   D) Assam

     Correct Answer:  
   C) Sikkim

6.   Question:  
   Which of the following lakes of India is located in Jammu and Kashmir?
   A) Phulhar Lake
   B) Kolleru Lake
   C) Anchar Lake
   D) Hamirsar Lake

     Correct Answer:  
   C) Anchar Lake

7.   Question:  
   Which of the following States has the longest coastline in India?
   A) Gujarat
   B) Maharashtra
   C) Tamil Nadu
   D) Odisha

     Correct Answer:  
   A) Gujarat

8.   Question:  
   The Northernmost place of India, 'Indira Col' is situated in:
   A) Jammu and Kashmir
   B) Ladakh
   C) Himachal Pradesh
   D) Arunachal Pradesh

     Correct Answer:  
   B) Ladakh

9.   Question:  
   'Kashida' is a type of embroidery that is famous in which of the Indian State?
   A) Punjab
   B) West Bengal
   C) Jammu and Kashmir
   D) Rajasthan

     Correct Answer:  
   C) Jammu and Kashmir

10.   Question:  
    Which of the following is not a folk dance belonging to the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir?
    A) Dumhal
    B) Hafiza
    C) Rouf
    D) Dangi

      Correct Answer:  
    D) Dangi

11.   Question:  
    Which one of the following is not among the principal languages of Jammu and Kashmir?
    A) Urdu
    B) Gojari
    C) Kashmiri
    D) Monpa
I

      Correct Answer:  
    D) Monpa

12.   Question:  
    Which is the deepest lake in Jammu and Kashmir?
    A) Wular Lake
    B) Nigeen Lake
    C) Mansar Lake
    D) Manasbal Lake

      Correct Answer:  
    D) Manasbal Lake

13.   Question:  
    The Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir came into existence on:
    A) 31-08-2019
    B) 31-10-2019
    C) 31-12-2019
    D) 31-07-2019

      Correct Answer:  
    B) 31-10-2019

14.   Question:  
    The name of India's longest road tunnel is:
    A) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee Tunnel (Chenani - Nashri Tunnel)
    B) Atal Tunnel
    C) Kuthiran Tunnel
    D) Banihal Qazigund Road Tunnel

      Correct Answer:  
    A) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee Tunnel (Chenani - Nashri Tunnel)

15.   Question:  
    Which town in Jammu and Kashmir is also known as Apple Town?
    A) Sopore
    B) Shopian
    C) Jammu
    D) Pahalgam

      Correct Answer:  
    A) Sopore

16.   Question:  
    Which ruler labelled Kashmir as the "Paradise of Earth"?
    A) Jahangir
    B) Aurangzeb
    C) Ashoka
    D) Shah Jahan

      Correct Answer:  
    A) Jahangir
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Thursday 15 August 2024

Dance forms of Inda, indian culture and heritage

Dance forms of Inda, indian culture and heritage


1. Sattriya is a classical dance form from which Indian state?
a) Assam
b) West Bengal
c) Odisha
d) Bihar
Answer: a) Assam

2. Which type of music is typically used in Bharatanatyam performances?
a) Hindustani music
b) Carnatic music
c) Folk music
d) Devotional music
Answer: b) Carnatic music


3. Bharatanatyam is particularly known for which of the following?
a) Elaborate costumes and masks
b) Fast spins and fluid movements
c) Intricate footwork, hand gestures, and facial expressions
d) Sword fighting sequences
Answer: c) Intricate footwork, hand gestures, and facial expressions
4. Kathakali originated in which state of India?
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Kerala
c) Karnataka
d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer: b) Kerala

5. What is a distinctive feature of Kathakali?
a) Complex footwork and facial expressions
b) Elaborate makeup, costumes, and facial expressions
c) Fluid movements and subtle gestures
d) Fast spins and intricate footwork
Answer: b) Elaborate makeup, costumes, and facial expressions
6. Kathakali primarily tells stories from which source?
a) Buddhist Jatakas
b) Hindu mythology
c) Mughal history
d) Sufi legends
Answer: b) Hindu mythology

7. Kathak is a classical dance form from which region?
a) Northern India
b) Southern India
c) Eastern India
d) Western India
Answer: a) Northern India

7. Kathak is known for which of the following dance elements?
a) Slow and subtle movements
b) Elaborate costumes and masks
c) Fast footwork, spins, and graceful movements
d) Sword fights and acrobatics
Answer: c) Fast footwork, spins, and graceful movements
9. Kathak is often accompanied by which type of music?
a) Carnatic music
b) Hindustani music
c) Folk music
d) Bhajan music
Answer: b) Hindustani music

10. Kuchipudi is a classical dance form from which Indian state?
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Andhra Pradesh
c) Karnataka
d) Kerala
Answer: b) Andhra Pradesh
11. What is a key characteristic of Kuchipudi dance?
a) Elaborate makeup and facial expressions
b) Graceful movements, complex footwork, and facial expressions
c) Sword fighting sequences
d) Acrobatics and jumps
Answer: b) Graceful movements, complex footwork, and facial expressions
12. Kuchipudi primarily tells stories from which mythology?
a) Greek mythology
b) Buddhist Jatakas
c) Hindu mythology
d) Sufi legends
Answer: c) Hindu mythology
13. Manipuri is a classical dance form from which Indian state?
a) Manipur
b) Assam
c) West Bengal
d) Odisha
Answer: a) Manipur
14. What is a key feature of Manipuri dance?
a) Fast spins and powerful footwork
b) Graceful movements, fluidity, and subtle expressions
c) Acrobatics and stunts
d) Elaborate masks and makeup
Answer: b) Graceful movements, fluidity, and subtle expressions
15. Manipuri dance originated in which century?
a) 15th century
b) 18th century
c) 12th century
d) 2nd century BCE
Answer: b) 18th century
16. Which state is the origin of Mohiniyattam?
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Kerala
c) Andhra Pradesh
d) Karnataka
Answer: b) Kerala
17. What is Mohiniyattam known for?
a) Graceful movements, expressions, and subtle gestures
b) Fast spins and powerful footwork
c) Elaborate costumes and acrobatics
d) Sword fighting sequences
Answer: a) Graceful movements, expressions, and subtle gestures
18. Mohiniyattam is primarily performed by which gender?
a) Male dancers
b) Female dancers
c) Both male and female dancers equally
d) Children only
Answer: b) Female dancers
19. Odissi is a classical dance form from which Indian state?
a) Odisha
b) West Bengal
c) Assam
d) Kerala
Answer: a) Odisha
20. Odissi is characterized by which of the following?
a) Elaborate costumes and facial expressions
b) Fluid movements, intricate footwork, and graceful postures
c) Fast footwork and spins
d) Acrobatics and jumps
Answer: b) Fluid movements, intricate footwork, and graceful postures
21. Odissi originated in which century?
a) 15th century
b) 18th century
c) 2nd century BCE
d) 12th century
Answer: c) 2nd century BCE
22. Sattriya is known for which of the following dance elements?
a) Elaborate makeup and costumes
b) Fluid movements, graceful postures, and intricate footwork
c) Sword fighting sequences
d) Fast spins and jumps
Answer: b) Fluid movements, graceful postures, and intricate footwork
23. Sattriya originated in which century?
a) 10th century
b) 15th century
c) 7th century
d) 18th century
Answer: b) 15th century 24. Where did Bharatanatyam originate?
a) Kerala
b) Tamil Nadu
c) Karnataka
d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer: b) Tamil Nadu
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Wednesday 5 June 2024

Important Questions on Caste System

Important Questions on Caste System

Important Questions on Social Stratification

Importance Questions on Social Class 


Q1: Which of these is a disadvantage of the caste system?
A) Equality  
B) Diversity  
C) Discrimination  
D) Integration  

Answer: C) Discrimination  
Explanation:  
The caste system can lead to discrimination, stereotypes, and mistreatment based solely on caste identity. This can develop negative stereotypes and beliefs about those born in lower castes, leading to discrimination, violence, and other forms of mistreatment based on an individual's caste identity.

 

Q2: What do you call a social system in which a social position is fixed for a lifetime?`
A) Caste System  
B) Class System  
C) Meritocracy  
D) Feudal System  

Answer: A) Caste System  
Explanation:  
In the caste system, people can do little or nothing to change their social standing determined by birth. The caste system determines all aspects of an individual's life, such as occupation, marriage partners, and housing.

 

Q3: In Indian Society, what is the function of caste?
A) To promote equality  
B) To provide social mobility  
C) To determine occupation  
D) To eliminate discrimination  

Answer: C) To determine occupation  
Explanation:  
One of the most distinctive factors of the caste system is the close link between castes and occupations, especially in rural India. Dalits or Scheduled Castes are clustered in the least well-paid and most degrading manual labor occupations. Features of the caste system include hereditary status, endogamy, fixed occupations, and reinforcement by religious beliefs.

 

Q4: Who were the propounders of the religious theory of the origin of caste?
A) Max Weber and Karl Marx  
B) Hocart and Senart  
C) Emile Durkheim and Talcott Parsons  
D) Auguste Comte and Herbert Spencer  

Answer: B) Hocart and Senart  
Explanation:  
According to Hocart and Senart, social stratification originated due to religious principles and customs in ancient India, where the king was considered the image of God. Different groups considered themselves distinct based on the deities they believed in.

 

Q5: Which theory of the origin of caste is supported by Nesfield?
A) Racial Theory  
B) Religious Theory  
C) Occupational Theory  
D) Political Theory  

Answer: C) Occupational Theory  
Explanation:  
Nesfield regarded the caste system as a natural product of the occupational division of Hindu society. He believed that initially, there was no rigidity, but over time, occupations became fixed, leading to the formation of castes based on fixed occupations.

 

Q6: Which of the following is not a feature of the caste system?
A) Exogamy  
B) Endogamy  
C) Hereditary status  
D) Hierarchy  

Answer: A) Exogamy  
Explanation:  
The features of the caste system are segmentary division, hierarchy, endogamy, hereditary status, hereditary occupation, food and drink restrictions, and the idea of pollution. Exogamy (marrying outside one's caste) is not a feature of the caste system.

 

Q7: Which was an economic system found in Indian villages where lower castes performed services for upper castes in exchange for goods or grains?
A) Barter system  
B) Jajmani system  
C) Feudal system  
D) Market economy  

Answer: B) Jajmani system  
Explanation:  
The Jajmani system was an economic system found in Indian villages where lower castes performed services for upper castes in exchange for goods. It was studied by W.H. Wiser, S.C. Dube, M. Opler, K. Ishwaran, and others, but not by K. Gough. K. Gough studied the Nayars of Kerala and their matrilineal system.

 

Q8: Who among the following classified three aspects of caste: secular, ideological, integrative?
A) Rajani Kothari  
B) M.N. Srinivas  
C) Louis Dumont  
D) Andre Beteille  

Answer: A) Rajani Kothari  
Explanation:  
According to Rajani Kothari, caste has three aspects: secular (relations within and between castes), integrative (differentiation and integration), and ideological (value structure). Kothari studied the relationship between caste and politics.

 

Q9: In modern industrialized society, the status of women in industry-
A) Has drastically fallen  
B) Has remained unchanged  
C) Has gradually risen  
D) Has led to complete gender parity  

Answer: C) Has gradually risen  
Explanation:  
Industrialization introduced new job opportunities for women, shifting work concepts. Women's roles changed considerably as they took on jobs as wage earners in the workplace. The availability of manufactured products diminished women's position as producers in the home, but their new role was to make the home a refuge for working males.

 

Q10: Structured inequalities between groups in society in terms of their access to material or symbolic rewards is a definition of which of the following?
A) Social mobility  
B) Social stratification  
C) Social cohesion  
D) Social integration  

Answer: B) Social stratification  
Explanation:  
Social stratification is a system of structured inequalities that exist between different groups of people in a society. The concept of social stratification is based on the idea that societies are divided into different layers or strata, with some groups having more resources and opportunities than others. These inequalities are based on differences in access to material or symbolic rewards, such as wealth, power, education, and status.


Q11: Which of the following dimensions are included in Max Weber's analysis of social stratification?
A) Wealth, Power, and Prestige  
B) Race, Ethnicity, and Class  
C) Class, Status, and Power  
D) Education, Occupation, and Income  

Answer: C) Class, Status, and Power  
Explanation:  
Class: Economic dimension of stratification, based on individuals' relationship to the means of production and their access to resources. Status: Social prestige and honor, defined by lifestyle, consumption patterns, and social recognition, not just wealth. Power: Ability to exert one's will, even over the resistance of others, often associated with political influence and authority.

 

Q12: Which type of poverty is a condition where household income is a certain percentage below median incomes in the society?
A) Absolute poverty  
B) Extreme poverty  
C) Situational poverty  
D) Relative poverty  

Answer: D) Relative poverty  
Explanation:  
Relative poverty is the condition in which people lack the minimum amount of income needed in order to maintain the average standard of living in the society in which they live. Relative poverty line is defined relative to some measure of welfare for the entire population. In other words, what determines relative poverty is the overall income level or standard of living in a society. A relative poverty line is set in relation to the overall distribution of income or consumption in a country/region of reference.

 

Q13: Birth is considered as what type of base of stratification?
A) Economic  
B) Political  
C) Biological  
D) Cultural  

Answer: C) Biological  
Explanation:  
Social stratification refers to a society's categorization of its people into groups based on socioeconomic factors like wealth, income, race, education, etc. The basis on Forms of Social Stratification — Biological stratification on Biological basis — age, sex, birth, race. Hence, Birth can be considered as the Social base of stratification.

 

Q14: Who stated the evolutionary perspective of stratification?
A) Karl Marx  
B) Gerhard Lenski  
C) Max Weber  
D) Emile Durkheim  

Answer: B) Gerhard Lenski  
Explanation:  
Ecological-evolutionary theory is a sociological theory of sociocultural evolution that attempts to explain the origin and changes of society and culture. Key elements focus on the importance of natural environment and technological change. It has been described as a theory of social stratification, as it analyzes how stratification has changed through time across different societies. Proposed by Gerhard Lenski, the theory is best articulated in his book, Ecological-Evolutionary Theory: Principles and Applications (2005).

 

Q15: "Style of life" is associated with which form of social stratification?
A) Class  
B) Power  
C) Status  
D) Wealth  

Answer: C) Status  
Explanation:  
Weberian stratification or the three-class system was developed by German sociologist Max Weber with class, status, and party as distinct ideal types. Weber developed a multidimensional approach to social stratification that reflects the interplay among wealth, prestige, and power. Status refers to the prestige and respect with which a person or status position is regarded by others (Status Situation).

 

Q16: What is the study of the structure of layers in society called?
A) Social stratification  
B) Social cohesion  
C) Social mobility  
D) Social integration  

Answer: A) Social stratification  
Explanation:  
Social stratification refers to a society's categorization of its people into rankings based on factors like wealth, income, education, family background, and power. An individual's place within this stratification is called socio-economic status.

 

Q17: Who defined social stratification as a division of society into permanent groups of categories linked with each other by the relationship of superiority and subordination?
A) Max Weber  
B) Karl Marx  
C) Gisbert  
D) Emile Durkheim  

Answer: C) Gisbert  
Explanation:  
Social stratification is a system by which a society ranks categories of people in a hierarchy. Social stratification is a process through which groups and social categories in societies are ranked as higher or lower than one another in terms of their relative position on the scales of prestige, privileges, wealth, and power. Gisbert defined social stratification as a division of society into permanent groups of categories linked with each other by the relationship of superiority and subordination.

 

Q18: The evolutionary perspective of stratification is stated by
A) Karl Marx  
B) Gerhard Lenski  
C) Max Weber  
D) Emile Durkheim  

Answer: B) Gerhard Lenski  
Explanation:  
Ecological-evolutionary theory is a sociological theory of sociocultural evolution that attempts to explain the origin and changes of society and culture. Key elements focus on the importance of natural environment and technological change. It has been described as a theory of social stratification, as it analyzes how stratification has changed through time across different societies. Proposed by Gerhard Lenski, the theory is best articulated in his book, Ecological-Evolutionary Theory: Principles and Applications (2005).

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Wednesday 29 May 2024

Conventions and Protocols related to various environmental and humanitarian issues

Conventions and Protocols related to various environmental and humanitarian issues



Wetlands

Ramsar Convention   : 

An international treaty that provides the framework for national action and international cooperation for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources.

Migratory Birds

Bonn Convention (CMS)   : 

Also known as the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals, it aims to conserve terrestrial, marine, and avian migratory species throughout their range.

Ozone Layer

Vienna Convention   : 

Provides a framework for international efforts to protect the ozone layer.

  Montreal Protocol   : 

An international agreement designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production and use of numerous substances believed to be responsible for ozone depletion.

Mercury

Minamata Convention   : 

A global treaty to protect human health and the environment from the adverse effects of mercury.

Warfare
Geneva Protocol   :
 Prohibits the use in war of asphyxiating, poisonous or other gases, and of bacteriological methods of warfare.

Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)

Stockholm Convention   : 

A global treaty to protect human health and the environment from POPs, which are chemicals that remain intact in the environment for long periods, become widely distributed geographically, accumulate in the fatty tissue of humans and wildlife, and have harmful impacts on human health or the environment.

Hazardous Chemicals and Pesticides

Rotterdam Convention   : 

Promotes shared responsibility and cooperative efforts among Parties in the international trade of certain hazardous chemicals to protect human health and the environment.

Hazardous Wastes

Basel Convention   : 

Aims to protect human health and the environment against the adverse effects of hazardous wastes by regulating their transboundary movements and ensuring their environmentally sound management.


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PARTITION OF BENGAL 1905

 PARTITION OF BENGAL 1905


Q1. Who was the viceroy of India at the time of Bengal Partition?  

A)   Lord Curzon  
B) Lord Minto
C) Lord Hardinge
D) Lord Chelmsford

Q2. When was Bengal partition announced?  

A) 1903
B) 1904
C)   1905  
D) 1906

Q3. When was Bengal partition carried out?  

A)   16th October 1905  
B) 15th August 1906
C) 1st January 1904
D) 25th December 1905

Q4. On what basis was Bengal Partition done?  

A) Linguistic
B) Administrative
C)  Religious  
D) Both B & C

Q5. In how many parts was Bengal divided?  

A)   Two  
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five

Q6. What was the capital of East Bengal after partition?  

A) Kolkata
B)   Dhaka  
C) Chittagong
D) Murshidabad

  Q7. What was the capital of West Bengal?  

A)   Calcutta 
B) Dhaka
C) Patna
D) Ranchi


Answers: 
Q1.  Lord Curzon  was the Viceroy of India at the time of the Bengal Partition.
Q2. The Bengal Partition was announced in  1905 .
Q3. The Bengal Partition was carried out on  16th October 1905 .
Q4. The Bengal Partition was done on the basis of  Religious  and  Administrative  reasons.
Q5. Bengal was divided into  Two  parts after the partition.
Q6. The capital of East Bengal after the partition was  Dhaka.
Q7. The capital of West Bengal after the partition was  Calcutta  (now Kolkata).

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Saturday 25 May 2024

Padma Award Winner List 2024

Padma Award Winner List 2024

Padma Vibhushan (5)

SN

Name

Field

State/Region/Country

1

Ms. Vyjayantimala Bali

Art

Tamil Nadu

2

Shri Konidela Chiranjeevi

Art

Andhra Pradesh

3

Shri M Venkaiah Naidu

Public Affairs

Andhra Pradesh

4

Shri Bindeshwar Pathak (Posthumous)

Social Work

Bihar

5

Ms. Padma Subrahmanyam

Art

Tamil Nadu

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Science Question Paper

Exam question Paper, Science Question Paper jkssb, Science questions asked in JKSSB exam, Science questions asked in ssc exam,

Q1. Which of the following is not a water pollutant?

answer:  Sulphur dioxide

Sulphur dioxide (SO₂) is primarily an air pollutant, not a water pollutant. It is a gas that can contribute to acid rain when it reacts with water vapor in the atmosphere, but it is not typically found as a pollutant in water. On the other hand, zinc, copper, and nickel are metals that can contaminate water sources and are considered water pollutants.


Q2. Too much consumption of tea or coffee can result in a deficiency of:

answer: Calcium


Q3. Tea and coffee contain compounds like caffeine and tannins, which can interfere with calcium absorption in the body. High caffeine intake can lead to decreased bone density over time, potentially resulting in calcium deficiency. While tea and coffee do have some impact on the absorption of other nutrients, the most significant and well-documented effect is on calcium.


Q4. Blood pressure is the pressure exerted by blood on the walls of:

answer:  Arteries


Q5. It is dangerous to observe a solar eclipse with naked eyes because:

Answer) Ultraviolet radiations from the sun burn our retina


Q6. All of the following are excretory (waste) products of animals, except

answer) Carbohydrates 


Q7. Which one of the following is not a greenhouse gas found naturally in the atmosphere?

Answer) Nitrogen oxide 


Q8. Which one of the following is not used as fertilizer? 

answer: Ammonium sulphide 


Q11. What is the role of positive catalyst in a chemical reaction? 

Answer: It increases the rate of reaction. 


Q12. If the equivalent resistance is to be decreased then the number of resistances should be connected in:

Answer: Parallel

Q13. When a short circuit condition occurs, the current in the circuit .

Answer ) Increases substantially.

 This happens because the path of the electrical current experiences very little or no resistance, leading to a sudden surge in current flow. This can produce excess heat and potentially damage or destroy electrical appliances.




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